There are 31,102 verses in the Bible. Added Verses (yes, MANY of the verses that you cling to - were added!!) Within the NIV, you will discover there are at least 16 “missing” verses when compared to the KJV. If you want to look for yourself, here are some of those “missing” verses:
MANY more below, but first...
- Matthew 23:14, Matthew 17:21, Matthew 18:11 (this verse has NOTHING!! ALL of the KJV has been ADDED - from nothing!! Nor is "99" in Matthew 18:12), Matthew 4:4, Matthew 7:13
- John 5:4 (this verse has NOTHING!! ALL of the KJV has been ADDED - from nothing!!)
μακάριοι οἱ πενθοῦντες πενθοῦντες παρακληθήσονται (none of which was actually there!) lso, the end of Matthew 5:3: "waiting for the moving of the waters" - is not even there. Yep - added by Translators. But that Greek literally translates to: "Content/fulfilled the to mourn/lament to call to or for/to exhort/to encourage"
- Mark 7:16, Mark 9:44, Mark 9:46, Mark 11:26, Mark 15:28, Mark 1:2 (EVERYTHING after "Isaiah the Prophet" is not agreeing from the TR.), Mark 1:3 (THE ENTIRE VERSE!)
- Hebrews 1:5, Hebrews 1:6 (HALF of each verse is missing); Hebrews 1:7-13 (ALL are from conflicting TR!); Hebrews 8:8-12 (see below)
- Revelation 3:7, Revelation 3:14, Revelation 3:15-16 is that "cold nor hot” verse.
- Luke 17:36
- Daniel 5:25: "Mene Mene Nekel ..."
- Acts 8:37 (and Acts 2:17-18, Acts 8:36-37. Verse 37 is absent in the NIV, but a notation is [correctly] added), Acts 15:34, Acts 24:7, Acts 28:29, Acts 13:22)
- Romans 16:24, Romans 2:6, ALL of Romans 10 (below)!! Romans 12:19 (See specifics below)
- 1 Timothy 5:18 - the "Do not muzzle an ox while it is treading out the grain,” or (KJV) "Thou shalt not muzzle the ox when he treadeth out the corn.” they were ADDED.
- Mark 11:17 - "My house shall be called a house of prayer but you have made it a Den of Thieves". And "Temple" was not even there!
- John 2:17 - "Zeal for your house will consume me".
- John 12:13 - "blessed is he who comes in the name of the Lord" is one of the "missing verses" - one of *many* in the Bible - where the TR (Textus receptus) has many conflicting copies.
- John 5:4
- 1 Corinthians 2:16 (the entire is: ἔχομεν νοῦν Χριστοῦ (meaning "To have mind/understanding The Messiah". ALL BEFORE IS MISSING, TR conflicting.
- and ... [drum roll] - one of the most quoted verses, yet it IS A MISSING VERSE!! Ephesians 5:31 - Yes, THE ENTIRE VERSE:
"For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh."
Also, Ephesians 6:14 - most all of the entire verse!
Correct - the TR copies do NOT AGREE, so they just "guessed/summarized" this, and put it into "the infallible Word of God".
(not in the original, added to the bible, added to scripture, added verses, guessed text - for search)
Romans 10
the whole last half of all of these:
Romans 10:7
Romans 10:11
Romans 10:15
Romans 10:16
Romans 10:18
Romans 10:19
Romans 10:20 (MOST of the verse!!)
Romans 10:21 (MOST of the verse!!)
Romans 10:8 (MOST of the verse!!)
Romans 10:6 (MOST of the verse!!)
Romans 10:13 THE WHOLE VERSE!!
Hebrews 8:8-12 - ALL missing verses!
NOTE:
Just to clarify something important:
Matthew 18:11 and John 5:4 were not “added by translators.” They are present in many Greek manuscripts (especially within the Byzantine tradition) and absent in some Egyptian manuscripts. Bible critics often omit them because they follow a different manuscript basis. Again, DIFFERING HUMAN OPINIONS - not "The concrete "word of God".
Early church writers quoted or referenced passages that Bible critics bracket or remove. That shows these readings were circulating very early, long before medieval translators. Here are 6 additional passages you may want to look into regarding early Christian usage:
Mark 16:9-20 - Quoted by Irenaeus in the Century 2 (Against Heresies 3.10.5).
Luke 22:43-44 - Referenced by early writers like Justin Martyr and Irenaeus.
John 7:53-8:11 - Discussed and cited by Ambrose and Augustine.
Acts 8:37 - Reflected in early baptismal confessions (Irenaeus, Cyprian).
Matthew 17:21 - Paralleled in early fasting traditions tied to Mark 9:29.
1 John 5:7 - The longer Trinitarian reading was discussed historically, though its manuscript support is later and debated.
The point isn’t that every manuscript contains every verse - but that many of these readings were known and used by Christians centuries before modern textual decisions were made. So the real issue isn’t “translators adding verses,” but which manuscript tradition later editors chose to prioritize. It’s always good to examine the evidence carefully.
Romans 12:19 (A “Hidden verse”!!)
"Vengeance Is Mine says The Lord"
"Beloved, never avenge yourselves, but leave it to the wrath of God, for it is written, “Vengeance is mine, I will repay, says the Lord.”
Original Greek: μὴ ἐκδικοῦντες ἑαυτοὺς ἀγαπητοί δότε τόπον ὀργῇ γέγραπται
Then it is a HIDDEN VERSE: ἐκδίκησις ἀνταποδώσω - - - meaning "vindication to recompense"
Back to normal: λέγει κύριος
So, the entire "Vengeance is mine, I will repay” is CONTRADICTING TR!!
The rest of literally means: “not to vindicate one’s self beloved to give a place impulse to write
Back to: to say master"
VENGEANCE definition:
1. the act of killing, injuring, or harming someone because they have harmed you.
2. the punishing of someone for harming you or your friends or family, or the wish for such.
3. punishment inflicted in retaliation for an injury or offence: retribution.
So, if you even WISH for retribution (punishment) on someone, you have committed it, and it is for God, NOT for you. Feel guilty now?? And here you were -wanting MEN to feel guilty for ever LOOKING at another woman - and here YOU have done far worse (wished for harm or DEATH)! This "walk" is much harder than you thought, isn't it?
Here are more verses on "Vengeance is mine":
Deuteronomy 32:35
Vengeance is mine, and recompense, for the time when their foot shall slip; for the day of their calamity is at hand, and their doom comes swiftly.’
Original Hebrew: נָקָם֙ וְשִׁלֵּ֔ם לְעֵ֖ת רַגְלָ֑ם תָּמ֣וּט יֹ֣ום אֵידָ֔ם קָרֹוב֙ עֲתִדֹ֥ת וְחָ֖שׁ
Literally means “vengeance recompense time foot to totter/shake day distress/calamity near ready/prepared to make haste”
Hebrews 10:30
For we know him who said, “Vengeance is mine; I will repay.” And again, “The Lord will judge his people.”
Original Greek: THE ENTIRE VERSE IS “HIDDEN VERSES” - the TR convicts!!!
Psalm 94:1
O Lord, God of vengeance, O God of vengeance, shine forth!
Original Hebrew: יְהוָ֑ה אֵל־ נְקָמֹ֥ות אֵ֖ל נְקָמֹ֣ות הֹופִֽיַע׃
Literally means “Yahweh God vengeance God vengeance to shine out/send out beams”
S, “O” were added for “drama”.
Leviticus 19:18
"You shall not take vengeance or bear a grudge against the sons of your own people, but you shall love your neighbor as yourself: I am the Lord."
or in the KJV Shakespeare English:
"Thou shalt not avenge, nor bear any grudge against the children of thy people, but thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself: I am the LORD."
Original Hebrew: תִקֹּ֤ם לֹֽא־ תִטֹּר֙ בְּנֵ֣י עַמֶּ֔ךָ וְאָֽהַבְתָּ֥ לְרֵעֲךָ֖ יְהוָֽה׃
Literally means “to avenge not son people to love [with your whole inner being, with every breath, with all you have. The prayer that called "V'ahavta" is actually the continuation of the Sh'ma.] friend/companion Yahweh” [_not_ "the Lord". "Yahweh means "the proper name of the God of Israel", - whereas "the Lord" denotes British monarchy - thanks to King James and his mis-translations.
So, the “or bear a grudge against” and " as yourself” were added.
Proverbs 20:22
Do not say, “I will repay evil”; wait for the Lord, and he will deliver you.
Original Hebrew: תֹּאמַ֥ר אֲשַׁלְּמָה־ רָ֑ע קַוֵּ֥ה לַֽ֝יהוָ֗ה וְיֹ֣שַֽׁע
Literally means “to say to be complete/sound evil/distress/misery to wait for Yahweh to deliver"
Of course, the pronouns “I” and “He” were added, as well as "do not”.
Acts 2:17-18
This is one of the MISSING VERSES!! This, and Acts 2:18!
"In the last days I will pour out my spirit upon all flesh."
First of all, what does "pour out my spirit upon all flesh" mean? Next, assuming this word is indeed accurate, the Greek word is πνεύματος ("pneumatos") - meaning "wind/air/breath".
Yet "sarka" is indeed the word (again, assuming it is correct), and it means "flesh".
Acts 2:16
διὰ προφήτου Ἰωήλ
Means: "through/on account of a prophet [NOT "the" prophet] Ioel ("Yoel", not "Joel")"
Acts 2:17
ἐσχάταις ἡμέραις θεὸς, λέγει ἐκχέω πνεύματος πᾶσαν σάρκα υἱοὶ θυγατέρες προφητεύσουσιν νεανίσκοι ὁράσεις πρεσβύτεροι ἐνυπνιασθήσονται ἐνυπνίοις
Means: "last/extreme day God to say to bour out/bestow wind/breath all/every flush a son daughter to forthtell [NOT future!] a young man [yes, a MALE] the act of seeing/a vision/appearance a senior of either gender to dream a dream"
Acts 2:18
καὶ δούλους ἐκείναις ἡμέραις ἐκχεῶ πνεύματος προφητεύσουσιν
Means: "and/even/also a servant or hired slave that one/that thing day to pour out/bestow wind/breath to forthtell [NOT future!]"
How Do Translators Decide What Verses Appear in the NIV Translation?
On the surface, the missing verses from the NIV would appear to be a scandal. Did they intentionally leave out these verses in the NIV translation? Is there some conspiracy going on where people are trying to change the meaning of scripture? Thankfully, the answer is no, and the NIV is NOT "false doctrine"! When you dig beneath the surface (simply go to the original scrolls), you will recognize there really isn’t any controversy at all. To understand this, you must consider how the NIV translation came to be and why there are missing verses - primarily when compared to the KJV.
Every legitimate Bible translation relies on manuscripts for their translation. The NIV is no different. A manuscript is a handwritten copy of the Biblical texts. There are almost 6,000 Greek manuscripts of the New Testament. These manuscripts are all dated. Some are older, written closer to when the original author wrote the Biblical text. The differences you find, or “the missing verses,” are simply the result of using different manuscripts.
So, there is nothing nefarious going on with the NIV.
For example, the KJV used the Textus Receptus as the basis for its translation. This was one of the best resources available to the KJV translators in the early 1600s, which is when this work was done. When the work on the NIV began, they did not use the Textus Receptus. Other manuscripts were discovered long after the KJV was translated. These manuscripts were dated before the Textus Receptus. Most scholars have deemed these later discovered manuscripts more reliable, and they were used as the basis for the NIV translation. This in no way discredits the work of the KJV translators. It just helps to explain why one verse may appear in one translation and not another. Considering that there are 31,102 verses in the Bible, the fact only a few verses create discrepancies shows the opposite of what we expect. It shows how remarkably consistent and agreeable these translations really are.
As a further note, the translators of the NIV did not just leave verses out. They usually noted the differences with a footnote highlighting the comparison to other manuscripts. Again, this leads to further credibility and shows no intention of misleading the readers. You will also see these “missing” verses cause no doctrinal differences.
https://www.biblestudytools.com/bible-study/topical-studies/missing-bible-verses-niv.html
https://aboutpastors.com/list-of-missing-verses-in-the-bible/
https://zondervanacademic.com/blog/the-missing-17-verses-in-the-bible-mondays-with-mounce
https://www.bing.com/search?q=missing+verses+in+the+bible
Although I am slowly combining the many, MANY verses that do NOT agree with each other in the copies of the TR, here is my "starting collection":
Romans 2:6
-- Original Greek: ὃς Note: the rest of this entire verse has conflicting Textus Receptus copies, and was therefore deleted from some translations - with notes to that effect. It is _impossible_ to _accurately_ quote - when the original was in Aramaic, yet the TR had varying copies, so "which one is correct?"
But - - we'll go with whet the Translators chose to record: ἀποδώσει ἑκάστῳ κατὰ ἔργα
-- Literally means: "who/which/that (TR: to give up/give back/return/restore each/every down/against/according to work"
Romans 10:13
Exactly the same with this: there is nothing the same on all TR copies, but - they chose this:
πᾶς ἐπικαλέσηται ὄνομα κυρίου σωθήσεται
-- Literally means: "all/every to call upon a name/authority/cause master to save"
-- FYI - these are called "the missing verses" - if you want to look them up. Remember: you are reading a highly modified English translation - which is from a Latin translation (TR) - which is from Hebrew, or Koine Greek - which is from Aramaic speech.
Matthew 7:21
-- Original text: πᾶς λέγων κύριε κύριε εἰσελεύσεται βασιλείαν ουρανῶν ποιῶν θέλημα πατρός οὐρανοῖς
-- Literally means: " all to say master master to go in sovereignty heaven to make will a father heaven"
-- So, "Not everyone" was originally "all", "he who does" was "to make", and "will enter", and "in" - all added by translators.